Since when is -2^2 interpreted as (-2)^2 ?
You realize you just stuck in a bracket into the equation..thereby explicitly changing the equation. So if -2^2 were to be interpreted as (-2)^2 then it would have been expressed as (-2)^2. Therefore it's logically impossible for -2^2 to be interpreted as (-2)^2 because then -2^2 would not exist.
i (a) don't know how you managed to pass any math tests past gr.6 in your life and (b) don't know how you're able to use a computer properly.
-2 is 0-2. This is all stuff you learn in basic math courses in the early high school years.
That being said, -2^2 MEANS 0 - 2^2. If you don't agree, then YOU're wrong.
*ouchies* Obviously I am a numbskull who is highly illiterate, I have never touched a computer in my life and I know nothing about mathematics. I bow to your greatly superior knowledge.
More seriously - OK - my memories of Maths from a long time ago have now been tested.
sure? Perhaps it means (-1) * (2^2) ? Is which case, I "disagree" with you. Is there a difference? Once you start transformations there is. Once is a translation, the other a scaling. Am I wrong?
An interesting argument, but without any further references (at hand) to back my argument up, I will have to side with Raccoons explanation. Thus, (until someone can find me a reference that unary negation has a higher precedence than exponential) I will concede, agree, concord, that this is a bug.
Cheers,
DK
