Yeah, I was thinking about that after I wrote it.
That's actually something I never really figured out. The WHY of that one baffles me.
Of course, I should probably read up on what ^0 actually means anyhow. Normally, you look at it as multiplying the base number by itself that many times (counting the original number). 2^3 is 2*2*2. But 2^0 isn't multiplying 2 by itself 0 times. I guess I should look that one up and see what the reasoning behind it is.
EDIT: Ok, I looked up the ^0 issue and it makes sense by changing the order of the math... a^(n-1) = a^n/a, so a^(1-1) = a^1/a = 1. Though... that seems to contradict 0^0 = 1. Because 0^1 / 0 != 1 as we're discussing here.
EDIT2: Found
this which is interesting. It gives a good view on 0^0 and fits in well with the divide by 0 issue. So, 0^0 isn't really 1... 1 is just used to make it more useful and consistent.
